Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 07:47
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
If there exists a “New York of Australia”, is it Sydney or Melbourne?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What is the reason for writing X^2 as XX instead of X*X?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Do you have any fantasies you are ashamed of?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.